Islam
Père Zakaria Boutros

The author      : Father Zakaria Boutros
www.fatherzakaria.comThe Publisher:

This book is the tenth in the series "between Islam and Christianity" in which we will discuss an important issue concerning the Holy Bible, we will handle that issue from different aspects:

First: Introducing the holy bible:
1) The contents of the Holy Bible
2) The inspiration of the Holy Bible

Second: the challenges against the Holy Bible, among them:
1) Is there one bible or four bibles?
2) Was the bible falsified?
3) Did the quran abrogate the bible?
 

Part one

Defining the Holy Bible
 

The Holy Bible is the holy book sacred by the Christians as it contains the words of God to mankind , we will clarify its content, then we will mention proofs showing that it is inspired from God
 

Chapter one

The contents of the Holy Bible

In the beginning we want to give the listener a simple idea about the Holy Bible, as it includes:

First: the Old Testament: it is the inspired holy book for the Jewish; it includes: the Taurât, the psalms (Zabour), and the book of prophets

Second: the New Testament: (the bible) it includes:

1) The gospels: they are the gospel of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John
2) The act of the apostles: it is a documentation of the evangelism of the Christ' disciples (Haoarieen)
3) The epistles: those are the epistles of Apostle Paul and those of Apostle Peter, Apostle James,
     Apostle John and Apostle Judas
4) The revelation: it is a prophetical book about the coming events throughout time till the end of the
    World

The Holy Book in its two testaments is telling the history of mankind in a wonderful sequence and in an easy diction, discoursing about several subjects concerning the relation of God to man and that of man towards God and the relation of man to his brother in humanity, it includes all the believing doctrines, worshiping canons , and spiritual values , so from its texts we extract our doctrines , canons and values
 

Chapter Two

The inspiration of the Holy Bible
 

Christianity believes that the Holy Bible in its two testaments, the old and the new one, is God's inspiration; here are some proofs for that:

First: the verses of the Holy Bible itself:

1) 2 Timothy 3:16: All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for
     Instruction which is in righteousness"
So from that verse, it is obvious that God inspired the whole Holy Bible

2) 2 Samuel 23:1:" David the son of Jesse says, The Spirit of the lord spoke by me. His word was on my tongue."

We understand from those verses that the psalms of David was God's inspiration uttered by Prophet David
Apostle Peter confirmed that prophets and Apostles utterances are the God's inspiration he said:

3) 2 Peter 1:21:" For no prophecy ever came by the will of man: but holy men of God spoke, being moved by the Holy Spirit."
 
 
 

Second: the noble quran

The noble quran attested that the Holy bible {the Taurât, Zabour (psalms) and the Injeel (bible)} is God's inspiration; it mentioned so many quran verses about that, we will mention only some of them

1) The Taurât:

+ The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 44:" We did send down the Taurât therein was guidance and light, by which the Prophets"

+ The cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 87:"We gave Moses the Book and followed him up with a succession of messengers. And we gave 'Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), clear signs and supported him with Rûh-ul-Qudus (Holy Spirit)."

{See also the cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 92, the night journey chapter (Surat Al-Isra') 2, the believers chapter (Surat Al-Mu'minun) 49, and others, all of them attested that the Taurât of Moses was God's inspiration}

2) Zabour (psalms):
+ The night journey chapter (Surat Al-Isra') 55:" and to Dawûd (David) We gave the Zabour (Psalms)."
{See also the women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 163, the angels' chapter (Surat Fatir) 25}, they are attesting for the psalms of David as God's inspiration, now we will come to its following testimony:
3) books of the prophets:
+ The women chapter (Surat An-Nisa')163:" We have inspired you as We inspired Nûh (Noah) and the Prophets after him; We inspired Ibrahim (Abraham), Ismail (Ishmael), Ishâque (Isaac), Ya'qûb (Jacob), and Al-Asbât [the twelve tribes], 'Iesa (Jesus), Ayub (Job), Yûnus (Jonah), Hârûn (Aaron), and Suleiman (Solomon), and to Dawûd (David) We gave the Zabour (Psalms)."
{Also in the bee chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 43, the prophets chapter (Surat Al-Anbiya') 25}
We have seen the testimony of the quran for the books of prophets as God's inspiration; we are left with the testimony of the quran for the bible as God's inspiration
4) the bible:
+ The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 46:"And in their footsteps, we sent 'Iesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), confirming the Taurât (Torah) that had come before him, and we gave him the Injeel (bible), in which was guidance and light "
{See also The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 47, and Iron chapter (Surat Al-Hadid) 27}
That's the quran's testimony for the bible as God's inspiration in its saying: we gave him meaning that God inspired the Injeel (bible),
Here also the quran's testimony for the whole Holy bible as God's inspiration
5) The whole Holy bible
+ The spider chapter (Surat Al-Ankabut) 46:" And argue not with the people of the Scripture (Jewish and Christian), unless in a way that is better in manner  ... and we believe in that which has been revealed to us and revealed to you; our Allah (God) and your Allah (God) is One"
So the quran advises the Muslims not to argue with the people of the Scripture (Jewish and Christian) unless in a way that is better in manner, and to believe that they believe in the holy bible inspiration, and in God who is one in whom they believe
+ The cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 146:" Those to whom We gave the Scripture (Jews and Christians) recognize it as they recognize their sons"
Here he explicate the extreme tenacity of the people of the Scripture (Jewish and Christian) with inspired the holy bible
{See also The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 68, the cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 156, and Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 94}
Those are some noble quran verses testifying that the whole holy bible with all its contents is God's inspiration and came from him
The challenges against the holy bible

1) Is there one bible or four bibles?
2) Was the bible falsified?
3) Did the quran abrogate the bible?
4) What about Barnabas' bible?
5) Didn't the bible foretell about Mohammed?
 

Chapter one

Is there one bible or four bibles?
 

Those evoking that challenge are saying that it is supposed that the bible came down on Iesa peace upon him, based on the utterance of the noble quran in:

The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 46:"And in their footsteps, we sent 'Iesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), confirming the Taurât (Torah) that had come before him, and we gave him the Injeel (bible), in which was guidance and light "

  {See also The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 47, and Iron chapter (Surat Al-Hadid) 27}

So why do Christians have four bibles they are: the gospel of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John?
To answer this challenge, we have to discuss it from different aspects:
+ First aspect: the concept of the revelation in Islam and Christianity
+ Second aspect: How do they believe in Barnabas' bible, while they believe only in Iesa's bible?
+Third aspect: the bible with its four gospels and the quran with its seven editions
 

Chapter one

The concept of the revelation in Islam and Christianity
 
 

The revelation in Islam is the quran written from the infinite time in the conserved tablet, as stated clearly in:
+The Big Stars chapter (Surat Al-Burooj) 21, 22:"This is a Glorious Quran, in Al-Lauh Al-Mahfûz (The Preserved Tablet)"
+ The Clot chapter (Surat Al-Alaq) 1:" Read! In the Name of your Lord, Who has created"
While the concept of the revelation in the holy bible is different from that of Islam, as the revelation in Christianity is though the holy spirit who is  directing the apostles and prophets to express by their words the meanings God wants to convey to people, as it is mentioned in the holy book in:
+2Peter 1:21:"For no prophecy ever came by the will of man: but holy men of God spoke, being moved by the Holy Spirit."

That's the first aspect, concerning the second aspect
 

Chapter two

How do they believe in Barnabas' bible,
While they believe only in Iesa' s bible?
 
 

Surprisingly, beloved, those who are challenging the presence of four gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John and saying that there in no bibles in the name of persons except one bible which is the bible of Iesa'( Jesus) peace upon him, they are amazingly believe in a bible named after a person ,calling it Barnabas' bible!!! What a surprise!! how do they believe in Barnabas' bible and deny the four bibles (gospels)? Where is their belief in only one bible which is the bible of Iesa' peace upon him?? I am offering that question to the sane and understanding people to give answer for their simple fellows
{Concerning Barnabas' bible we will discuss in details later}

That's another aspect; let us handle the matter from a third aspect
 

Chapter three

The bible with its four gospels

and the quran with its seven versions

{Or what is known in the Islamic terminology as the seven letters}
 
 

First:

The bible with its four gospels

The holy bible is clarifying that there is only one bible in Christianity that's the sole Christian annunciation which is the salvation of the world, that's explained in the following verses:

1) Mark 1:14 Jesus is saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the Kingdom of God is at hand! Repent, and believe in the gospel"
2) Matthew 4:23:"It was said about the Christ" he went throughout Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, proclaiming the gospel
     Of the kingdom"
3) Romans 1:16:"our teacher Apostle Paul is saying:" For I am not ashamed of the gospel: for it is the power of God unto
     Salvation to every one who believes."

This only one bible was written by four of the Christ disciples, each one wrote the gospel for a specific category of people, as Matthew wrote the gospel to the Jewish announcing for them the Christ salvation , while Mark wrote to the Romans , Luke wrote the Greek and John wrote to all nations , if we wish to explain this fact in the correct Islamic terminology we can say the only one bible was written in four letters
This saying may sound strange for some; they may ask what is meant by: it was written in four letters? Or what is the meaning of the expression letters?
To understand that expression, we have to demonstrate first its basic use in the noble quran

Second

The quran and its seven editions
 

You may wonder, dear reader if you know that the quran was not one but there were seven different qurans , to them the title" the seven letterers" was given, the Caliph Othman Bin Affan had burned six of them , and retained only one quran, that's the one currently used by the Muslims , Othman paid his life for what he had done , he was assassinated and died murdered

1) The proofs for the existence of the seven qurans:

1) Abu Gaffer Al-Nahass wrote in his book (the abrogator and abrogated)" it is understood from the nation ancestors and the best
    Imams the meaning of: "the quran came down on seven letters" as it came on seven accents and it was commanded to recite it
    In seven tongues (recitations) with difference in the words and accordance in the meanings,
    From the affirmed narrations by Omer Bin Al-Khatab, Abdullah Bin Masoud and Obi Bin Kaeb, they differ with each other in the        recitation of the same suffixes with difference in the meaning, and they adjudged the prophet for that , he approved all of their
    Different recitations, they got suspicious for his approval of their different recitation, and then the prophet of God PUH said to
    Those who were suspicious for his approval of them all: "God commanded me to read the quran in seven letters"

2) This expression was also mentioned in an honorable holy converse for the prophet PUH, narrated by Sheikh
    Galal El-Din Abdul Rahman Al- Syouty in his book (the perfection in the quran sciences, part 1, and page 46, 51) as he said: from
    The narration of a group of companions …. Twenty one companions... That Othman said on the platform: the prophet peace
     Upon him said: the quran came down on seven letters, all of them are sufficient, so all of them attested on that …."

2) The meaning of the seven letters:

      Al- Syouty commented on that converse saying "there was a disagreement about that converse, there were about forty
      Different opinions concerning it, of them:
 
 1) It means seven aspects of similar meanings, expressed in different verbalism (as the Arabic verbalism of: Naho, akbal, Taa'l,
       Haloma, aj'el, and Asre': all with the meaning of hurry up)

2) Ibn Abdel-barr said that the different letters in which the quran came are expressions with concordant meanings and different
      Hearings

3)  Al- Syouty concluded his research saying: lot of lay people thought that (the seven letters) were the
     Seven recitations of Ottoman's quran, that's an ugly ignorance"

4) Sheikh Abu-Gaefar Mohammed Ibn jarir Al-Tabry explained that honorable converse in his book (Gamee Al-Bayan in quran's
    Exegesis (tafsir), part 1, page 48) saying:
 
    A- the difference in the seven letters is a difference in verbalism, with accordance in the meaning (from that, it is obvious that
          The quran had seven letters, i.e. seven texts or seven different editions)
 
    B- Al-Tabry continues saying; if someone says: why do the other six letters not exist now? Although the prophet approved all
         The seven letters, and commanded to conserve them? That's a waste of what they were commanded to do"
 
 

3) Burning of the six qurans:

1) Sheikh Abu-Gaefar Al-Tabry is asking: what was the story on that?
He is replied saying; the other six other letters or editions were dropped by Othman who banned their recitations (Gamee Al-Bayan in quran's exegesis (tafsir), part 1, and page 66)

2) It was mentioned in the Arabic encyclopedia known as (the simplified Arabic encyclopedia, page 1187) under the title" Othman
     Bin Affan" there was a strong dissent against him ended by a revolution and his assassination, the causes of that revolution
    Were many among them, his infringement of the religion by burning all the qurans except the quran that he ordered to
    Generalize

3) Imam Al-Tabry explained in his book (Gamee Al-Bayan in quran's exegesis (tafsir), part 1, page 66) the reason for which Othman
     Bin Affan burned the six qurans; it was the discordance of Muslims and their fighting for the preference of those different quran
     Editions, every party of them was tenacious about the edition he had.
 
 

Recapitulation
 
 

From all of these we can see:

First; concerning the quran:

1) From the time of the prophet till Othman Bin Affan's time, there were seven qurans concordant in meaning but different in
    Verbalism
2) Othman Bin Affan had burned six qurans and retained one quran, which is the one existing with people nowadays
3) Why were those six quran burned? Their existence now wasn't better than all those exegesis written by the annotators which are contradicting and conflicting with the verbalism of the remaining editions, that was the reason behind which the rebels shed
  Othman's blood as he burned the other editions, so we are wondering what were in those editions to push him for burning them?
He would rather leave them considering them like different exegesis, or he should burn all quran's exegesis as well

Second: Concerning the Holy Bible

1) Thanks God, all the four gospels are preserved and handy to anyone to read them, study them, and to find out how they are Concordant and integral with each other, so we consolidate our belief in the oneness of the Holy Bible in spite of different  books in it
 
2) So the presence of four gospels in not a demerit in Christianity, but on the contrary it is a positivism in the Holy Bible, having it as singularity character
 
 

Chapter two

Nihility of Falsification of the Holy Bible
 
 

The quran verses that point to falsification

Some say that the holy bible available in our hand now is a falsified book, depending on the utterance of the noble quran in:
+Cow chapter( Surat Al-Baqarah) 75:" Do you covet that they will believe in you ,while a party of them used to hear the word of Allah , then falsify it after they understood it, and they know that "
+ Women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 46:" Among those who are Jews, there are some who displace words from their right places"
+The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 13." They change the words from their right places and have abandoned a good part of the Message that was sent to them.
+The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 41:"… And of the Jews are men who listen eagerly to lies…They displace some words from their right places"

To rebut that, we will clarify the following:
First: what was meant by those noble verses?
Second: the testimony of the holy bible itself on it's non- Falsification
Third: the testimony of the quran on Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
Fourth: the testimony of Logic on Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
Fifth: the testimony of respectable Islamic scholars on Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
Sixth: the testimony of archeology and history on Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
 
 
 
 

Chapter one

The concept behind the verses pointing to falsification
 

The grave question here: the meaning of those verses, is it really falsification of the Holy Bible? Or it has another intention?

We can reformat that question as follows:
Are those noble quran verses definitely pointing to falsification of the holy bible texts? Or they meant other form of falsification??

So we have to understand the meaning of the words of those noble verses then discuss what was meant by that falsification accusation?

First:

The first verse speaking about the falsification

+Cow chapter( Surat Al-Baqarah) 75:" Do you covet that they will believe in you ,while a party of them used to hear the word of Allah , then falsify it after they understood it, and they know that "
1) What was meant by that noble verse?
Imam Al-Bidawy said: "Do you covet that they will believe in you (meaning the Jews) as a party of their ancestors used to hear the word of God, i.e. the Taurât then falsify it….meaning to misinterpret it and construe it as they wish …" after they understood it" meaning that they understood it by their mind and clarify each doubt in it"
So from the exegesis of Imam Al-Bidawy, it is obvious that the falsification accusation was not in the texts of Holy Bible but in the interpretation and exegesis
2) There is another remark, that's:
That verse clarifies that only one party of Jews were performing that falsification of the interpretation, and not all of the Jews that proves that the falsification was not in the text of the verses as in such case all the Jews would commit that misdeed and not group of them
3) There is a third remark that's:
In the utterance of the noble verse:" hear the word of Allah, then falsify it" meaning that the word of God was existing without falsification, and they are still hearing it as evidenced by his saying" to hear the word of Allah , then falsify it" notice here the suffix" then" and all the linguistics know well that " then" means ordering the events in succession , meaning that they hear the word of God then after hearing it they falsify its meaning "
4) A fourth remark:
In the utterance of the noble verse" after they understood it" meaning that such party of Jews were understanding and well reasoning the word of God itself then they performed a falsification of its meaning
5) Also a last remark concerning the utterance of the noble verse" and they know that "isn't it understood from those words that such party of Jews knew the true text of God's word in spite of that they changed its exegesis ?
So that noble quran verse doesn't mean falling in falsification of God's words text, but in its interpretation and exegesis, as attested by Imam Al-Bidawy and other respectable annotators
Second:
The second verse speaking about the falsification

+ Women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 46:" Among those who are Jews, there are some who displace words from their right places and say: "We hear and disobey," and "Hear and let you hear nothing." And Râ'na (listen to us) with a twist of their tongues and as a mockery of the religion and if only they had said: "We hear and obey", and "Do make us understand," it would have been better for them, and more proper, but Allah has cursed them for their disbelief, so they believe not except a few."
In that noble verse we have several remarks:
1) in the saying" Among those who are Jews" it is noticed that he didn't say the Christians , on that occasion I am saying that : there is no single verse in the whole noble quran attributes any falsification accusation of the Holy bible to the Christians whether in the text or meanings
2) in that saying he attributes the falsification to only a group of Jews not all of them as he said" Among those who are Jews" so the rest of the Jews are tenacious to the book and never falsified it
3) In the saying of that verse" who displace words from their right places" notice its saying from their right places, what does that mean?
1) Imam Al-Bidawy said in the exegesis of that verse: among the Jews, a group of them were displacing it from the right places in which God had put  ….by interpreting it as they wish so displacing its meaning meant by God when he sent it "
2)The noble quran called that" twisting of their tongues" meaning that changing the pronunciation of the verbalisms according to their Hebrew language, and the quran gave an example of that in the same verse as it said: (Râ'na) with a twist of their tongues so changing the pronunciation of (Râ'na) meaning (listen to us) and pronounce it (Râ'nna) meaning "O madcap" which is an insult in Hebrew { the quran exegesis( tafsir) book by Imam Abdullah Yousef Ali , page 200}

3) So by falsification in that verse, it was not meant falsification in the Taurât text but in Jews talking with the prophet Muhammad as evidenced by the verse saying" as a mockery of the religion"

4) Imam Al-Razy said: as the book which was conveyed by succession doesn't permit change of verbalisms (the forenoon (Doha) of Islam page 346,358 by Mr. Ahmed Amin) this means that Imam Al-Razy negates the accusation of the Holy Bible text falsification

6) 5)Sahih Al-Bokhary said:" displace words from their right places" means remove it and no one could remove any word from the books of Al-mighty God but they misinterpret its meaning"

 From that it is obvious that Women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') verse didn't mean a falsification of the Holy Bible text but its interpretation of the meaning by twisting the tongue and pronouncing the inspired words in a different way according to their Hebrew language verbalisms

Fourth:

The fourth verse speaking about the falsification

+The Table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 41:"… And of the Jews are men who listen eagerly to lies, listen to others who have not come to you…They displace some words from their right places, they say, "If you are given this, take it, but if you are not given this, then beware!"
1) Imam Abdullah Yousef Ali said in his exegesis (tafsir), page 260:"lot of Jews were eager to catch the prophet in laying so their ears were widely open for those tales about him even from those people who never came to him"

 2) He construed the phrase" They displace some words from their right places" saying that: the Jews were not honest with their writers as they were falsifying the meanings"
 
3) Imam Al-Zamakhshary said:" it was narrated that an honorable man from Khaiber committed adultery with an honorable woman , and both of them were married , and their sentence according to the Taurât was stoning , but they refused to stone them for their honorable position , they sent a delegation of them to ask the prophet of God , peace upon him, about that, they said if Muhammad orders scourging you accept but if he orders stoning don't accept and they sent the two adulterous  with them , then the prophet ordered to stone them ,but they refused to accept his judgment, so he consulted the Jewish Rabi  Ibn Soria to judge between him and them .. He confirmed the stoning sentence, they said at the end of the story that the prophet after the judgment of the Jewish Rabi Ibn Soria, had ordered to stone them , so they stoned them by the mosque door to execute the sentence of the Taurât on them , so the annotators had agreed that the reason for the descend of  that verse in the table chapter  was that story, so the falsification intended was the interpretation of the Taurât sentence for them and not changing of the Holy Bible text
 

4) It was mentioned in Al-Galaleen" this verse came as two Jews committed adultery, then adjudged the prophet , so he adjudged to stone them , and they brought the Taurât to him and he found the stoning sentence in it , and they got angry"

5) The prophet Muhammad reference to the adjudgment of the Taurât is a confirming proof for his convincement with nihility of the holy bible falsification
 
So dignified listeners, as we have seen, the word falsification mentioned in the noble quran was intending the attitude of a party of Jews towards two famous incidents, they are;

1) The Jewish misinterpretation of the stoning sentence as being scourging
2) Their negation of the prophet's recitation of " the coming prophet (Al-Ati) "as being" the illiterate prophet (Al-Omi)"

I want to direct attention to the following remark
 
 

.
The Enunciation Science in the Quran language
 
 

Of the enunciation patterns used by the noble quran is the specification pattern in a generalization frame as its saying in Women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 53" Or do they envy men for what He has given them of His Bounty"
The two imams Al-Galaleen construed that verse saying:" they envy men" is a generalization pattern meaning a specification which is the personage of  the prophet Muhammad as they envy him for the prophethood and the multitude of women"
That's the specification pattern in a generalization frame adopted by the noble quran as it used the phrase" They displace some words from their right places" so that's a generalization pattern meaning specification i.e.:
1) The Jewish misinterpretation of the stoning sentence as being scourging
2) Their negation of the prophet's recitation of" the coming prophet (Al-Ati) "as being" the illiterate prophet (Al-Omi)"

So what do we say to the lay people who are unaware of the exegesis patterns in the quran, according to the linguistic sciences, elegance and enunciation??
 
 

Chapter two

The testimony of the Holy Bible for its non-falsification

Some say that the Holy Bible in our hand nowadays is a falsified book, in the previous chapter we discussed the noble quran verses pointing to falsification, and it was proved to us that those four verses didn't speak about the occurrence of falsification
In the verbalisms of the Holy Bible but in the exegesis of its meanings concerning the stoning and scourging issues , and the issue of the coming or the illiterate prophet , so it has nothing to do with the essence of the Holy Bible and its verbalisms , and also that was proved to us by the decisive evidence from the noble quran verses
Now we will continue or subject explaining:
 

First:

From the utterances of the Christ
 
The Christ affirmed the Nihility of the Holy Bible falsification in several sites as he said in:

1) The gospel of Matthew 24:35:
    "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away."

2) The gospel of Matthew 5:18:
     "For verily I say unto you until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way
       Pass away from the law, until all things are accomplished".

 
Second;

The punishment of Falsification

It as mentioned in the Holy Bible what confirms the improbability of the occurrence of falsification in the Holy Bible, as there was a very rigorous punishment over whoever attempts to add or subtract any part of it, as it said:

Revelation 22:18 "if anyone adds to them, may God add to him the plagues which are written in this book. If anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, may God take away his portion from the book of life, and from the things which are written in this book."

So who dares after those warnings and admonitions to touch the holy bible by adding or subtracting?
 
 

Chapter three

The testimony of the noble quran
For nihility of the holy bible falsification
 
 

If we wish to rebut those challengers by verses from the noble quran affirming the veracity of the Holy Bible( the Taurât and the new testament) and nihility of its falsification, we have to ask them an important question , that's:

In your view, when did this falsification happen?
Was it before the time of Muhammad?
Or, after the time of Muhammad?
Let us discuss that
 

The first allegation

 
Was the falsification before the time of Muhammad?

Those advocating that opinion are saying: the Holy Bible was falsified before the time of Prophet Muhammad,

In a T.V program on [A.R.T] channel, one of the Islamic proselytizers was scepticizing in the veracity of the Holy Bible depending on the oldest handwritten edition for the Taurât, present till now dating to the first century B.C, and Moses' time was in the thirteenth century B.C. his claim was; who can guarantee that the Taurât was not falsified before the first century B.C?
Actually the answer for that challenge is very simple, it is present in the quran itself, as the quran attested in the veracity of the Holy Bible, and it is the inspired word of God, and it was not altered or falsified, as it is obvious from the following:
 

First:

The quran is attesting for the truthfulness
And veracity of the Holy Bible
That was present during the time of
The prophet Muhammad
 
 

1) the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 47"And we have sent down to you the book in truth, confirming what came before of the Scripture and dominant over it"

What was meant by "confirming what came before "? And what was meant by the Scripture?
And what was meant by" dominant over it "?

The annotators agreed that God sent down the quran in truth" confirming what came before "meaning that confirming the book which was present during the time of Muhammad i.e. the Taurât and the bible , and "dominant over it" meaning that attesting for it { Al-Galaleen exegesis( tafsir) for that verse of the table chapter(Surat Al-Ma'idah)}
2) The Family of Imran chapter (Surat Aal-'Imran) 3:"It is He who has sent down the book to you with truth, confirming what came before it. And he sent down the Taurât (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel)"
3) Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 37:" And this Quran is not such as could ever be produced by other than Allah, but it is a confirmation of what was before it"
In the quran there are 12 verses attesting that the quran is confirming the Holy Bible that was with the people of the scripture during the time of Muhammad { for revising those verses see: the cow chapter(Surat Al-Baqarah) 41,89,91,97 , the women chapter(Surat An-Nisa') 46, the cattle chapter(Surat Al-An'am) 92, Joseph chapter(Surat Yusuf) 111, The Originator of Creation chapter(Surat Fatir)31, The Curved Sand-hills chapter (Surat Al-Ahqaf) 22}
So if the Holy Bible was falsified, the quran wouldn't confirm it and attest on its veracity or that will be a discrediting of the quran and accusing it of forgery, so does any Muslim accept that accusation of the noble quran?

Second:
The quran is showing that God is commanding
The prophet Muhammad and Muslims to
Refer to the Holy Bible

1) God directed the prophet Muhammad to the Holy Bible to abolish his skepticism in the quran itself:
Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 94:" So if you are in doubt concerning that which we have revealed unto you, then ask those who are reading the book before you." {It was repeated for confirmation}
What does that mean? It means that if Muhammad was skeptical in the quran that was revealed unto him, so he has to ask the Jews and Christian who had the book before him , that's a testimony for the veracity of the Holy Bible till his time , or he wouldn't told to ask them , as logically how could he ask the people of a falsified book?
2) He commanded the prophet Muhammad to follow the Holy Bible and those prophets guided by it
 It was mentioned in the cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 89, 90:" They are those whom we gave the book, understanding, and Prophethood, They are those whom Allah had guided. So follow (Ektade as in original Arabic text) their guidance."
The Arabic language committee in the intermediary dictionary (Al-Ma'gam Al-Waseet) is clarifying the meaning of (Ektade) :{ it means that to do his deeds or follow him and it was written" (Ektade) follow their guidance"}{ the intermediary dictionary (Al-Ma'gam Al-Waseet) ,part two , page 720}
So if the Holy Bible was falsified during the time of Muhammad, so how would he command him to be guided by its guidance???
3) He commanded them to refer to the people of the scripture to learn form them if they don't know!
The bee's chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 43:" And we sent not before you any but men, whom we inspired, so ask of those who know the Scripture, if you know not. With clear signs and books"
So if the book was falsified during the time of Muhammad, did he command them to refer to the people of the Scripture?"

Third:
The verses affirming that Muhammad was referring
To The Taurât and Bible present during his time
That's a proof of their veracity

1) The Narration chapter (Surat Al-Qasas) 49:" Say "Then bring a Book from Allah, which is a better guide than these two, that I may follow it"
What a strong testimony!! In this noble quran verse the Holy Bible (Taurât and bible) is from God and it is truthful for Muhammad to be guided by
2) the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 68:" O people of the Scripture, You have nothing till you act according to the Taurât (Torah), the Injeel (Gospel), and what has been sent down to you from your Lord"
Here he is asking the Jews and Christians to act according to the Taurât and the Gospel, and what has been sent down from God in them!!!I Isn't that a strong testimony for the veracity of the Holy Bible and its non-falsification during the time of Prophet Muhammad?
3) the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 43:" But how do they come to you for judgment while they have the Taurât (Torah), in which is the judgment of Allah;"
This verse is attesting for the Taurât that was present during the time of Muhammad, in which is the judgment of Allah, i.e. it is attesting for its veracity, as if this in not true, he wouldn't say such saying
4) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 47:" Let the people of the Injeel (Gospel) judge by what Allah has revealed therein. "
This verse also is attesting for the veracity of the Holy Bible during the time of Muhammad, as he is vouching by it and asking the Christian to judge by what Allah has revealed therein
So if the Holy Bible was falsified then how did Prophet Muhammad vouch by it, would he vouch by a falsified book??? Isn't his vouching by the Holy Bible is a proof that it is true and not falsified during his time???

Fourth:

The quran is attesting that the people of
Scripture preserved it and were witnesses
For it till the time of Muhammad
 
 

1) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 44:" We send down the Taurât (Torah) therein was guidance and light, by which the Prophets, who submitted themselves to Allah, judged the Jews. And the rabbis and the priests for to them was entrusted the protection of Allah's Book, and they were witnesses for it. "

 What is the meaning of that verse especially" the Prophets, who submitted themselves to Allah "the annotators are saying that those prophets were those submitted their lives to Allah's will (the exegesis (tafsir) of Imam Abdullah yousef Ali, page 261) {and of course didn't mean the Muslim prophets as first there is only one prophet for Islam, second Islam didn't appear yet] so those prophets were judging the Jews, meaning that guiding them by the guidance and light within the Taurât
The most important part of that verse is the prophets and the rabbis (the teachers as rabbi in Hebrew means teacher), in the intermediary dictionary, page 321{rabbi is the one who worships God and is perfect in deeds and knowledge, so the rabbis are the scholars {the intermediary dictionary, page 151}

The noble verse is telling that to them all was entrusted the protection of Allah's Book and they were witnesses for its veracity"(the exegesis (tafsir) of the noble quran by Imam Abdullah yousef Ali, page 261,262)

2) Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 146, and The cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 20:" Those to whom we gave the Scripture, they recognise it as they recognize their sons"

3) Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 121"Those to whom we gave the Book, they recite it as it should be recited, they are the ones that believe therein. And who disbelieves in it, those are the losers"

The meaning of "they recite it as it should be recited" as construed by Al-Galaleen "they read it as it came" so it is not falsified as during the time of Muhammad they were reading it as it came
 
You have seen dear listener that the Holy Bible till the time of Muhammad was not falsified by the testimony of those clear and frank verses
 

The second allegation

The occurrence of falsification
After the time of Muhammad

There is anther group of skeptical in the veracity of the Holy Bible, as it was approved for them that what was said by the first group of prosecutors about the falsification before the time of Prophet Muhammad was a false accusation depending on what we have clarified from proofs and evidences from the verses of the noble quran itself , so they said nay the falsification happened after the time of Muhammad

To rebut that allegation we will mention what was attested by the noble quran about the nullification of that allegation also:
 

First: the noble quran is attesting that
The Holy Bible was Reminder from God
Therefore he guards it from falsification
 

1) The Noble Quran is attesting that the Holy Bible was Dhikr (reminder) from God:
1) The prophet's chapter (Surat Al-Anbiya) 7:" And we sent not before you but men, to whom we inspired, so ask the people of the Dhikr (reminder), if you do not know.
  What is meant by reminder? Imam Abdullah yousef Ali answer that in his exegesis (tafsir) page 648 {the Dhikr (reminder) is the message from God} this verse was repeated with the same verbalisms in:
2) The bees' chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 43:"And we sent not before you, any but men, whom we inspired, so ask of those who know the people of the Dhikr (reminder), if you know not, with clear signs and Books"

By this it was confirmed to you that the Holy Bible is a reminder from God
2) And the Quran is attesting that God guards the Dhikr (reminder) from falsification:
 The Rocky Tract chapter (Surat Al-Hijr) 9:" It is we who have sent down the Dhikr (reminder) and surely, we will guard it"
Notice the vocalization of the name of that chapter as it is Al-Hijr and not Al-Hajar (see verse 80 from the same chapter) named after Al-Hijr Mountain, about 150 miles north to Madina  Al-Monaura city , what was known as Tamoud area "(the exegesis (tafsir) of the quran by Imam Abdullah yousef Ali, page 632)
Actually, those aspersing the veracity of the Holy Bible. That came from God as a reminder, guidance and light, they are aspersing the quran itself as it said that God is guarding the Dhikr (reminder), so if the Holy Bible was falsified, so God couldn't guard it, saying that we are accusing the quran of being untrue and falsified! Does any Muslim accept that?

 
Second: the quran verse attesting that the quran itself
Guards the Holy Bible from falsification:
 

the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 48"And we have sent down to you the book in truth, confirming what came before of the Scripture and dominant over it"
What was meant by dominant over it? The respectable annotators are saying that the meaning of dominant over it is; guarding it from falsification (see the exegesis (tafsir) of Imam Abdullah yousef Ali, page 263)
So if those challengers are right and it is true that the Holy Bible is falsified, actually they are aspersing the noble quran itself as it couldn't dominate over the Holy Bible according to the text of that verse, and that's an aspersion in its veracity , and as they are can't accept the aspersion in the veracity of the noble quran verses so they have to recede in their allegation of the falsification of the Holy Bible
 
 

Third: the quran is attesting that the
Holy Bible is the word of God, therefore
It couldn't be falsified or changed
 

1) The quran is attesting that the Holy Bible descended word of God:

The Spider chapter (Surat Al-Ankabut) 46:" And argue not with the people of the Scripture, unless it is in a way that is better and in good manner… and say: We believe in that which has been revealed to us and revealed to you; our God and your God is One"
The women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 136:"O you who believe! Believe in Allah, and His Messenger , and the Book which He has sent down to His Messenger, and the Scripture which He sent down before( meaning the Taurât and the bible), and whosoever disbelieves in Allah, His Angels, His Books, His Messengers, and the Last Day, then indeed he has strayed far away"
{Also see the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 68, 47, 46 and the cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 146, 87, and The Journey by Night chapter (Surat Al-Isra') 2, 55, and The Cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 92,156, and The Believers chapter (Surat Al-Mu'minun) 49, and The women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 163 and The Originator of Creation chapter(Surat Fatir) 25, and the bees' chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 43, and the prophets' chapter(Surat Al-Anbiya') 25, and the iron chapter(Surat Al-Hadid) 27, and The Spider chapter (Surat Al-Ankabut) 46, and Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 94} all of these are attesting that the Holy Bible descended from God
 And as the Holy Bible descended from God, so it is his words, so how do the challengers say that the word of God was
 Falsified? By saying that, don't they asperse in the quran itself that is saying "No change can there be in the Words of Allah"?!

2) The quran is attesting that the descended word of God could never be changed:
1) Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 64:" No change can there be in the Words of Allah, this is indeed the supreme success"
2) The Cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 34:" many messengers were denied before you, but with patience they bore the denial, and they were hurt, till Our Help reached them, and none can alter the words of Allah"
The importance of that verse is that the saying of" none can alter the words of Allah" didn't mean the noble quran in this verse but it pertained  the prophets who came before Muhammad so it pertained the Holy bible " so it is a strong  testimony that the Holy Bible was not changed ,altered or falsified
{See also the cave chapter (Surat Al-Kahf) 27}
Those verses are clearly stating that the word of God could never be changed or altered
 
 

Recapitulation

We can now recapitulate what we have said:
First: the allegation of Holy Bible' Falsification is a fake allegation:
1) As the quran is attesting for its veracity till the time of Prophet Muhammad
2) And the quran is stating clearly that God commanded the prophet Muhammad and Muslims to refer to the Holy Bible present with them
3) The prophet Muhammad's vouching by the Taurât and the bible present during his time
4) The testimony of the quran that the people of scripture, the Jews and Christians, had guarded it and were witnesses over it till the time of Muhammad
Second: the allegation of Holy Bible' Falsification after the time of Prophet Muhammad is also a fake allegation
1) As the noble quran is attesting that the Holy Bible is reminder (Dhikr) from God, and attesting that God is guarding the reminder from falsification
2) The testimony of the quran verses that the quran itself is dominant over the holy Bible and guarding it from falsification
3) The noble quran is attesting that the Holy Bible is God's words and God is guarding his words from falsification
 

For that
The Holy bible could never be falsified or altered, otherwise the Muslim challenger would fall in the forbidden, and that's the aspersion in the veracity of his own book's verses
So it is better for the challenger to recede in accusing the Holy Bible of alteration and falsification, and may God protect the believers from the evil of fighting
 
Chapter Four
The testimony of Logic for
Nihility of falsification of the Holy Bible

After we had mentioned the noble quran verses attesting that the Holy Bible was not altered or falsified before the time of Muhammad, and also was not altered or falsified after the time of Muhammad , we would like to inspect that matter from the logical point of view , so let us discuss those questions:
? Where did the falsification happen?
? Who had performed the falsification?
? In what language was the falsification?

First: Where did the falsification happen?

All know that the Christianity since the time of the Christ's apostles (disciples) prevailed in many places of the world in Asia, Africa, and Europe; consequently the Holy Bible prevailed in those places
Our question is: In what country of those continents did falsification take place, in which country of Asia? Or Africa? Or Europe?
Or the falsification happened in all of them? And How did this happen?
All of those are unanswered questions, which proves the improbability of the occurrence of falsification in any country of those different continents

Second: Who had performed the falsification?

1) Had the Jews performed falsification of the Taurât and the books of the prophets?
2) Or had the Christians performed falsification of the books of the Jews and also the bible?
3) Which Rite of Christianity had performed that falsification?
4) Or did the Jews agree with Christians to do falsification of both books together (the Taurât and the bible)?
Let us discuss each assumption separately
 

The first assumption

The Jews performed falsification of the Taurât?
 

To rebut that assumption we say: if the Jews had performed falsification of their book, that would be very easily discovered as the Christians were and still keep copies of the Jews' book itself , and the Christians wouldn't allow the Jews to falsify even one letter of the words of the Holy Bible that they keep and recognize as they recognize their sons (Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 146" they recognize it as they recognize their sons" for to them was entrusted the protection of Allah's Book, and they were witnesses thereto. "As mentioned in the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 44

The second assumption
 

The Christians performed falsification of the Holy Bible?

To rebut that, we would repeat again what we have said in rebutting the first assumption:
The Jews wouldn't allow the Christians to perform any falsification of a single letter of the Holy Bible words that they recognize as they recognize their sons (Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 146)" Those to whom we gave the Scripture, they recognize it as they recognize their sons" and they were also entrusted on it, and they were witnesses thereto (meaning that witnesses for its veracity). "As mentioned in the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 44

The third assumption
 

The Jews agreed with Christians to do falsification of both books together (the Taurât and the bible)?

To rebut that assumption we say:
If there was an agreement between the Christians and Jews on the falsification of the Holy Bible, they would definitely agree on the Christ case which is the core of both books the; Taurât and the bible, and as there is no agreement  about the case of the Christ , this means that there was no agreement on the falsification of the Holy Bible,
 
 
 
 

In addition to that:

We are saying which one of the Christian rites had performed that falsification?
 

The Christians since the fourth Gregorian century i.e. three centuries before the appearance of Islam, was split into rites (similar to the Islamic rites as the Sunnah, Shea'h, Malakian, and Shafe'ian and Hanbaly), as the Christian rites at that time were: Orthodox and Catholic and there were also many heresies in Christianity like the Ariusians and Nestorians and others, so which one of those had falsified the Holy Bible? Actually the Holy Bible is the same for all those rites, no single difference between the copies they all had , so did those with difference in rites agree on the falsification of the Holy Bible without agreeing together on the matters they differ in?!!
 

On that Mr.Ali Amen said: in his book (the forenoon of Islam (Doha Al-Islam), part one, page 358)"a group of scholars of converses, jurisprudence and language agreed that the alternation happened in the interpretation and not in the descended text, their pretension is: the Taurât was widely distributed in the east and west (before the appearance on Muhammad and the quran )" no one knows the number of its copies but God and it is impossible to have a collusion for performing alternation and changing in all of these copies , so that there will be no single copy in the whole earth but altered or changed and that change is uniform everywhere , that's logically impossible and the sane mind is attesting for its nullification "

You may realize from that the improbability of the falsification of the Holy Bible
Those were our answers on those two questions: where did the falsification take place? Who did that falsification? And now the answer to the third question, that's:
 

 
Third: In which language did that falsification happen?
 
 

It is well known that the Holy Bible was written in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek and was translated to many languages from the beginning of Christianity: to Latin, Syrian, Coptic, Arabic, Assyrian, Ethiopian and others , so in which language of those languages did the falsification happen ?
 Actually the Holy Bible in all languages is one and the same, and there is no difference in it in all of these languages
Isn't that attesting for the Holy Bible that it had never been falsified, by any mean?
 
 
 
 
 

Chapter four

The testimony of the archaeology for Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
 

It is certain that the archaeological discoveries had affirmed Nihility of the Holy Bible falsification, as in our hands a handwritten ancient archaeological copy for the Holy Bible which is fully accordant with the Holy Bible copies with no minor change , alternation or falsification , from those ancient handwritten copies the followings:

1) The Vatican codex, preserved till now in the Vatican, dated to about 250 years before Islam
2) The Sinian codex that was discovered in Saint Catherine monastery in Sinai, dated to more than 200 years before Islam, it is
     Present now in the British museum
3) The Alexandrian codex, dated to about 200 years also before Islam, it is also present in the British museum
4) The wisps of Qumran Valley: as Abbas Mahmoud Al-Akad wrote in Al-helal book, in December edition 1959, the opening editor, under the title:" the treasures of Qumran Valley" he said: those archaeological wisps were discovered in one of the caves of Qumran Valley, in eastern Jordan … wisps from 2000 years (that article was on1959) {i.e. before the appearance of Islam by more than six centuries} , after spreading them for inspection they showed that they include a complete copy of Isaiah book …and many other holy books, those books are showing no minor difference between them and the holy books we have nowadays not a single difference or alternation"

So brother as you see the testimony of the archaeology that never lies for veracity of the Holy Bible and Nihility of its falsification.
 
Now we will handle the last proof for the veracity of the Holy Bible and Nihility of its falsification from:
 

Chapter five

The testimony of the Islamic scholars for Nihility of the Holy Bible Falsification
 

The respected Islamic scholars spoke extensively on the veracity of the Holy Bible and Nihility of its Falsification; we will just mention some of their utterances:
1) Imam Muhammad Bin Ismail Al-Bokhary: he said in his Sahih as exegesis of the noble quran verse saying:" displace words from their right places", "i.e. removing it", actually no one can remove any word from any book of God's books, but the misinterpret its meaning" meaning the construing it wrongly"
2) He himself also said in his book (Fath Al-Barry, the explanation of Sahih Al-Bokhary):"Ibn Taimia was asked about this matter, he replied in his Fatwa (Islamic legislation): as the scholars said: "no alternation but in the meaning only"
 

3) the great scholar Shah Walii said in his book ( the great winning in the fundamentals of exegesis)" in the translation of the Taurât and the exegesis of the texts , the Jews had altered the meanings of some verses , but they didn't falsify the original text, on that utterance Ibn Abbas also agreed"
 

4) Imam Fakhr El-din Al-Razy: in the great exegesis ( tafsir) in the Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 174 narrated Ibn Abbas :"they were altering the Taurât and bible and that's impossible as they were widely distributed and famous books to the degree that it is impossible to have such alternation , but they were hiding the interpretation "
 

5) He said also in the exegesis of The Family of Imran (Surat Aal-'Imran) 78"how could falsification of the Taurât take place with its great publicity among people"
 

6) he said also in the exegesis of the women chapter ( Surat An-Nisa') 46:" what was meant by falsification : false accusation , and corrupt interpretations and dragging the verbalism from its true meaning to the delusive one , by using the vocabulary tricks, as the people of heresies are doing these days with the verses that are contradicting with their doctrines"
 

7) He said also in the exegesis (Al-Dorr Al-Monthour) of the Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah)" Ibn Al-monzer and Ibn Hatem said, narrated Wahb Ibn menabeh: the Taurât and bible as descended from God had never been altered not even for a letter, but they were misleading others by misinterpretation through books they were writing themselves and saying that those were from God , they were not from God , for the books of God are conserved and never changed"

 8) The Galaleen: in their exegesis of those two noble verses "It is We who has sent down the Dhikr (reminder) and surely, we will guard it." He said" meaning that God guarded it from alternation, falsification, addition or subtraction"

9) Mr. Abbas Mahmoud Al-Akad wrote (as we explained before) in Al-helal book, in December edition 1959, the opening editor, under the title:" the treasures of Qumran Valley" he said: those archaeological wisps were discovered in one of the caves of Qumran Valley, in eastern Jordan … wisps from 2000 years (that article was on1959) {i.e. before the appearance of Islam by more than six centuries} , after spreading them for inspection they showed that they include a complete copy of Isaiah book …and many other holy books, those books are showing no minor difference between them and the holy books we have nowadays not a single difference or alternation"
10) Mr.Ali Amen said: in his book (the forenoon of Islam (Doha Al-Islam), part one, page 358)"a group of scholars of converses, jurisprudence and language agreed that the alternation happened in the interpretation and not in the descended text, their pretension is: the Taurât was widely distributed in the east and west (before the appearance on Muhammad and the quran )" no one knows the number of its copies but God and it is impossible to have a collusion for performing alternation and changing in all of these copies , so that there will be no single copy in the whole earth but altered or changed and that change is uniform everywhere , that's logically impossible and the sane mind is attesting for its nullification "
 
Recapitulation
 

Dear listener after this simple demonstration I want to capitulate what we have said about the veracity of the Holy Bible and nihility of its falsification in the following points:

First: we spoke about the quran verses that suggest a falsification:

It was affirmed to us that those four verses didn't speak about the occurrence of what they claimed to be a falsification in the verbalisms of the Holy Bible, but in the interpretation of its meanings concerning the issue of stoning or scourging the adulterous man , and the issue of the illiterate or the coming prophet ( Al-Omy or Al-Ati), and it has nothing to do with the essence of the Holy Bible , verbalisms or words

Second: It was affirmed to us also that the allegation of the Holy bible's falsification before the time of prophet Muhammad is a fake allegation
1) As the quran is attesting for its veracity and nihility of its falsification till the time of Prophet Muhammad ( The Family of Imran chapter (Surat Aal-'Imran) 3):"It is He who has sent down the book to you with truth, confirming what came before it. And he sent down the Taurât (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel), Aforetime, as guidance to mankind"
2) And the quran is explaining that God commanded Prophet Muhammad and Muslims to refer to the Holy Bible available in their hands (Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 94.)" if you are in doubt concerning that which We have revealed unto you, then ask those who are reading the Book before you"
3) the Prophet Muhammad 's vouching by the Taurât and the bible available in his time The Narration chapter (Surat Al-Qasas) 49 " "Say ,Then bring a Book from Allah, which is a better guide than these that I may follow it, …."
4) The testimony of the quran that the people of scripture the Jews and Christians had guarded it and were witnesses for it till the time of Muhammad The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 44:" We send down the Taurât (Torah) therein was guidance and light, by which the Prophets, who submitted themselves to Allah, judged the Jews. And the rabbis and the priests for to them was entrusted the protection of Allah's Book, and they were witnesses for it. "
Third: the allegation of the Holy bible's falsification after the time of prophet Muhammad is a fake allegation

1) As the noble quran is attesting that the Holy Bible is a reminder from God and God is guarding the reminder from falsification ,The Rocky Tract chapter (Surat Al-Hijr) 9: "It is We who has sent down the Dhikr (reminder) and surely, we will guard it"
2) the testimony of the quran verses that the quran itself is dominant over the Holy Bible, and guarding it from falsification ,the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 48"And we have sent down to you the book ( i.e. the quran) in truth, confirming what came before of the Scripture ( the Taurât and the bible) and dominant over it"
3) The noble quran is attesting that the Holy Bible is the word of God ,and God guards his words from falsification, ) The Cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 34:" many messengers were denied before you, but with patience they bore the denial, and they were hurt, till Our Help reached them, and none can alter the words of Allah"
Fourth: it was proved to us the nihility of the Holy Bible's falsification by the testimony of
1) The logic: as it is impossible to falsify the Holy Bible in the whole world areas with different religions, rites and languages
2) The archaeology: with the discovery of the ancient codices dating hundred years before Islam, it was affirmed that they are identical to the Holy Bible available in our hands
3) The utterances of the respectable Islamic scholars that are clearing every skepticism in the veracity of the Holy Bible

For that

I am concluding what I have said in the previous chapter that the Holy Bible could never be altered or falsified otherwise the Muslim will fall in the forbidden, that's the aspersion in the veracity of the verses of his book
It is better for the challenger to recede in accusing the Holy Bible by the falsification and alternation charges "This is better for you, if you but knew "{Repentance chapter (Surat At-Taubah) 41}
 
 

Part three
Nihility of Abrogation of the Holy Bible by the quran

We started discussion of the issue of veracity of the Holy Bible and nihility of its falsification and we have proved that through:
1) the testimony of the Holy bible itself on nihility of the falsification of any letter of it
2) the testimony of the noble quran on nihility of falsification of the Holy Bible
3) The testimony of the logic for the improbability of falsification of the Holy Bible in all countries of the world and in all different people
4) the testimony of the archaeology on nihility of falsification of the Holy Bible
5) the testimony of the Islamic scholars on nihility of falsification of the Holy Bible

In this part we will discuss another issue that's" did the quran abrogate the Holy Bible? In other words did it cancel it and replace it??
Actually discussing that issue will push us to ask several essential questions
The first question: what is the concept of abrogation in the quran language?
The second question: How does the quran abrogate the Holy Bible and it confirms it?
The third question: How does the quran abrogate the Holy Bible and it commands the prophet Muhammad and the Muslims to refer to it?
The fourth question: How does the quran abrogate the Holy Bible and it commands the Christian to judge by what was written in it?
The fifth question: How does the quran abrogate the Holy Bible and it commands to follow its legislations?
The sixth question: what book is the one concerned with the abrogator and the abrogated?

Let us discuss these questions quietly and with sound logic based on the noble quran verses and the utterances of the respectable Islamic scholars

 
Chapter one

what is the concept of abrogation in the quran language?
 

First; Imam Galal Al-Din Al-Syouty mentioned in his book (the perfection, part two, page20, 21) concerning the meanings of the abrogation: the abrogation in the noble quran comes as:
1) With the meaning of cancellation, as his saying in The Pilgrimage chapter (Surat Al-Hajj) 52 saying:" Never did we send a messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he "tamana "(recite the revelation), Satan threw some falsehood in "omneyatoh"    (recitation). But Allah abolishes that which Satan throws in. Then Allah establishes His Revelations. And Allah is All-Knower, All-Wise" "
2) With the meaning of replacing, The Bees chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 101. And when we change a verse in place of another, and Allah knows the best of what he sends down, they say: "you are but a forger." nay, but most of them know not"
3) With the meaning of transformation, {in the end of the Spoils of War chapter (Surat Al-Anfal)} as the abrogation of inheritance from one to one

4) With the meaning of transportation from one place to another: you may say I copied (Nasakht in Arabic language) a book , meaning that I copied its content exactly word by word , as Al-mighty God attested for that in: The Kneeling chapter (Surat Al-Jathiyah) 28:" you shall be nastansakh "recompensed for" what you used to do

Second: the two Imams Al-Galaleen explained the meaning of the first verse mentioned by Al-Syouty about the meaning of the abrogation which is the cancellation from the context of the verse of The Pilgrimage chapter (Surat Al-Hajj) 52 saying:" Never did we send a messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he "tamana "(recite the revelation), Satan threw some falsehood in "omneyatoh"(recitation). But Allah abolishes that which Satan throws in. Then Allah establishes His Revelations. And Allah is All-Knower, All-Wise"

The two Imams Al-Galaleen construed that verse saying:" the meaning of "tamana "is to recite, and "omneyatoh" is his recitation, the prophet peace upon him was reciting from the Star chapter (Surat An-Najm) in the presence of the people of korish some words" Have you then considered Al-Lât, and Al-'Uzza (two idols of the pagan Arabs). And Manât (another idol of the pagan Arabs) the other third, "Then Satan threw some falsehood on the tongue of the messenger peace upon him without his knowledge, " those great "Gharaneek"{great idols), their intercession is accepted ' they were delighted by that saying, then Gabriel told him that such recitation was thrown by Satan on his tongue , he was grieved for that, so he was solaced  by that verse

Third: the cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 106:"Whatever a verse do we abrogate or cause to be forgotten, we bring a better one or similar to it"
Al-Galaleen said:" this verse came down when the disbelievers aspersed in the abrogation and said that Muhammad commands his people today to do something then he forbids it the next day"
Comment: From all that mentioned we can see that the abrogation is confined to the noble quran verses only and nothing else, there is no single quran verse or noble converse stating that the quran abrogates the Holy Bible

Chapter Two
How did the quran abrogate the Holy Bible and it was the one which confirmed it?

How does a sane person dare to say that the quran had abrogated the Holy Bible? as by saying that he is aspersing in his quran that mentioned very frankly in many places that it came confirming the Taurât and the bible , here are some of those verse as examples:

1) Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 37:" And this Quran is not such as could ever be produced by other than Allah, but it is a confirmation of what was before it

2)  the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 48"And we have sent down to you the book ( i.e. the quran) in truth, confirming what came before of the Scripture ( the Taurât and the bible) and dominant over it"

3) The Cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 92:" And this is a blessed Book which we have sent down, confirming which came before it"

4) The Originator of Creation chapter (Surat Fatir) 31:"And what we have inspired in you, of the Book, it is the truth confirming that which was revealed before it"

5) The Curved Sand-hills chapter (Surat Al-Ahqaf) 12:"nd before this was the Scripture of Moses as a guide and a mercy. And this is a confirming Book in the Arabic language"
6) The Curved Sand-hills chapter (Surat Al-Ahqaf) 30:"we have heard a Book sent down after Moses, confirming what came before it"
7) Joseph chapter (Surat Yusuf) 111:" It is not a forged statement but a confirmation of the existing books"
8) Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 91:"it is the truth confirming what is with them"
9) Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 97:" he has brought it down to your heart by Allah's Permission, confirming what came before it"
10) The Family of Imran chapter (Surat Aal-'Imran) 3:"It is He who has sent down the book to you with truth, confirming what came before it. "
The exegesis of Imam Al-Baydawy for the expression of," confirming what came before it" it came confirming or identical to what preceded it from the Holy books that were attested for its truthfulness... So it is attesting for its veracity"
So who can imagine that the quran accrediting the veracity of the Taurât and the bible could abrogate them??!

Chapter three
How did the quran abrogate the bible
And he commanded the prophet Muhammad and the Muslims to refer to it?

First: God referred the prophet Muhammad to the Holy Bible to clear his skepticism in the quran:
As, it was mentioned in Yunus chapter (Surat Yunus) 94.)" If you are in doubt concerning that which we have revealed unto you, then ask those who are reading the Book before you"

What does that mean? It means that if Muhammad was skeptical in the quran that was descended to him, he had to ask the Jews and Christians who had the Book before him, that is a testimony for nihility of abrogation of the book of the Jews and Christians by the quran, or else he wouldn't be told to ask them , as logically , how would he ask those of an abrogated book?
 
Second; and he commanded the prophet Muhammad to be guided by the Holy Bible and the prophets whom had been guided by those books
It was mentioned in the cattle chapter (Surat Al-An'am) 89, 90:" They are those whom we gave the book, understanding, and Prophethood, They are those whom Allah had guided. So follow (Ektade as in original Arabic text) their guidance."
The Arabic language committee in the intermediary dictionary (Al-Ma'gam Al-Waseet) is clarifying the meaning of (Ektade) :{ it means that to do his deeds or follow him and it was written" (Ektade) follow their guidance"}{ the intermediary dictionary (Al-Ma'gam Al-Waseet) ,part two , page 720}
So if the Holy Bible was abrogated, then how he commanded him to be guided by its guidance???
Third: He commanded them to refer to the people of people of the Dhikr (reminder) to learn from them if they knew not

The bees' chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 43:"And we sent not before you, any but men, whom we inspired, so ask of those who know the people of the Dhikr (reminder), if you know not, with clear signs and Books"

Fourth: the prophet Muhammad himself was attesting for the Taurât and the bible, saying:
 The Narration chapter (Surat Al-Qasas) 49:" Say "Then bring a Book from Allah, which is a better guide than these two, that I may follow it"
What a strong testimony!! In this noble quran verse the Holy Bible (Taurât and bible) is from God and it is truthful for Muhammad to be guided by, that's a sufficient testimony for proofing its non abrogation
As if the book was abrogated, did he command them to refer to the people of that book? And did the prophet attest for it by what he had said?

Chapter Four
How did the quran abrogate the Bible
While asking the people of the scripture to judge by what was written in it?

1) Cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 213:" Mankind was one community and Allah sent Prophets with glad tidings and warnings, and with them He sent the Scripture in truth to judge between people in matters wherein they differed"
So the scripture was sent to the prophets to judge between people by what was written wherein, so how could someone say that the quran had abrogated it?
2) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 68:" Say "O people of the Scripture, you have nothing till you act according to the Taurât (Torah), the Injeel (bible), and what has been sent down to you from your Lord", so he is asking the Jews and the Christians to adjudge by the Taurât and bible, and what has been sent down from God!!!, isn't that a strong testimony that the quran didn't abrogate the Taurât and bible???
3) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 43:" But how do they come to you for judgment while they have the Taurât (Torah), in which is the judgment of Allah;"
4) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 44:" We send down the Taurât (Torah) therein was guidance and light, by which the Prophets… And the rabbis and the priests …"
5) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah) 47:"Let the people of the Injeel (bible) judge by what Allah has revealed therein. And whosoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed therein. Then such people are the Fâsiqûn (disobedient)"
That verse is attesting also on nihility of abrogation of the Holy Bible by the quran , as the prophet Muhammad was vouching by it ,asking the Christians to adjudge by was descended by God wherein
So if the Holy Bible was abrogated, then how would the prophet Muhammad vouch by it? Would he vouch by an abrogated book???, wasn't that his vouching by the Holy Bible considered a proof for its non abrogation??? , he even said more than that, saying:" whosoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed therein. Then such people are the Fâsiqûn (disobedient)"
So how could they claim that the quran had abrogated the Holy Bible
6) The table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah). 66. And if only they had acted according to the Taurât (Torah), the Injeel (bible), and what has been sent down to them from their Lord ,they would surely have gotten provision from above them and from underneath their feet"
The quran is encouraging the people of the scripture to follow the Taurât and the bible, so how could anyone dare to say that they were abrogated??!!

Chapter five
How did the quran abrogate the bible
While it orders to follow its legislations?

1) the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 48:" To each among you, we have prescribed legislation and a clear way. If Allah willed, He would have made you one nation"
2) The two Imams Al-Galaleen said:" we had made for you, O nations a legislation and a clear way in religion to follow, If God willed, He would have made for you one legislation, but he dispersed you into rites to test you in the different legislations he gave you, to find out who is the obedient among you and who is the disobedient , so hurry up for the good deeds"
So the quran is commanding the people of the Taurât to follow its legislation, and the people of the bible to follow its legislation
After that, could they say that the quran had abrogated the Holy Bible?
3) Consultation chapter (Surat Ash-Shura) 13:" He has ordained for you of the religion which He ordained for Nûh (Noah), and that which we have inspired in you, and that which we ordained for Ibrahim (Abraham), Moses and 'Iesa (Jesus) saying you should establish religion, and make no divisions in it"
4) This was construed by Imam Al-Bidawy:"meaning that he ordained for you of the religions, the religion of Noah, Muhammad, and those in-between them from the people of legislations which had the common origin …. "You should establish religion" that is the faith in what you should believe and the obedience of the God's adjudgment"
So how did the quran abrogate the Holy Bible legislations, while it professes it??
5) women chapter (Surat An-Nisa') 26:" Allah wishes to make it clear to you, and to show you the ways of those before you"
6) Al-Galaleen construed that saying:" the ways of those before you" means the ways of the prophets in allowing and prohibiting"
It is very obvious that the quran was showing to the Arabs the ways of the prophets and their legislations in allowing and prohibiting, so how an ignorant claims that it abrogated the Holy Bible with the included legislations??
7) The proof for the non-abrogation of the Holy Bible's legislations by the quran was that prophet Muhammad had judged by the stoning sentence approved by the Taurât for the adulteress and adulterer, those of Khaiber, as it was mentioned in the table chapter (Surat Al-Ma'idah') 48:" So judge between them by what Allah has revealed"
Imam Al-Zamakhshary said:" it was narrated that an honorable man from Khaiber committed adultery with an honorable woman , and both of them were married , and their sentence according to the Taurât was stoning , but they refused to stone them for their honorable position , they sent a delegation of them to ask the prophet of God , peace upon him, about that, they said if Muhammad orders scourging you accept but if he orders stoning don't accept and they sent the two adulterous  with them , then the prophet ordered to stone them ,but they refused to accept his judgment, so he consulted the Jewish Rabi  Ibn Soria to judge between him and them .. He confirmed the stoning sentence, they said at the end of the story that the prophet after the judgment of the Jewish Rabi Ibn Soria, had ordered to stone them , so they stoned them by the mosque door to execute the sentence of the Taurât on them , so the annotators had agreed that the reason for the descend of  that verse in the table chapter  was that story , so the prophet Muhammad approved the legislation of the Taurât which is the stoning and he didn't abrogate it
It was mentioned in Al-Galaleen" this verse came for the Jews as two Jews committed adultery, then adjudged the prophet , so he adjudged to stone them , and they brought the Taurât to him and he found the stoning sentence in it , and they got angry"

So the vouching of the prophet Muhammad by the adjudgment of the Taurât is a definite proof for the non-abrogation of the Holy Bible

 
Chapter six

Which book is the one concerned with the abrogator and abrogated?

 
There is a very important question, from it many questions are emerging:
1) Is the abrogator and abrogated existing in the Taurât?
2) And does it exist in the bible?
3) Or what was meant by the abrogator and abrogated is that the quran abrogated the books before it?
4) Or the abrogator and abrogated is only confined to the noble quran verses among themselves?

 The abrogator and abrogated is only confined to the noble quran

Actually if we study the abrogator and abrogated verses, we will find them specifying that for the quran verses among themselves, and has no relation with the Taurât and the bible , neither from near nor far, here are the noble quran verses , then the testimony of the Islamic scholars on that:
1) The Bees chapter (Surat An-Nahl) 101:"And when we change a verse in place of another, and Allah knows the best of what he sends down, they say: "you are but a forger." nay, but most of them know not"
It is obvious from that verse that the intension here was the replacement of the quran verses
2) The Pilgrimage chapter (Surat Al-Hajj) 52 saying:" Never did we send a messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he "tamana "(recite the revelation), Satan threw some falsehood in "omneyatoh"    (recitation). But Allah abolishes that which Satan throws in. Then Allah establishes His Revelations. And Allah is All-Knower, All-Wise" "
The two Imams Al-Galaleen construed that verse saying:" the meaning of "tamana "is to recite, and "omneyatoh" is his recitation, the prophet peace upon him was reciting from the Star chapter (Surat An-Najm) in the presence of the people of korish some words" Have you then considered Al-Lât, and Al-'Uzza (two idols of the pagan Arabs). And Manât (another idol of the pagan Arabs) the other third "Then Satan threw some falsehood on the tongue of the messenger peace upon him without his knowledge, " those great "Gharaneek"{great idols), their intercession is accepted ' they were delighted by that saying, then Gabriel told him that such recitation was thrown by Satan on his tongue, he was grieved for that, so he was solaced by that verse
3) The cow chapter (Surat Al-Baqarah) 106:"Whatever a verse do we abrogate or cause to be forgotten, we bring a better one or similar to it"
Al-Galaleen said:" this verse came down when the disbelievers aspersed in the abrogation and said that Muhammad commands his people today to do something then he forbids it the next day"

4) Imam Galal El-Din Al- Syouty said in his book (the perfection in the quran sciences, part 2, and page 22:"God made the abrogation pertained to this nation only "{by this nation he means the Arabic nation}: You are the best of peoples ever raised up for mankind; "The Family of Imran chapter (Surat Aal-'Imran) 110.
 

Recapitulation
From all mentioned above, we can see that the abrogation is pertained to
The noble quran verses and nothing else
There is neither a single verse in the quran
Nor a single converse from the honorable converses
Stating that the quran abrogates the bible
So whoever claims that the quran had abrogated the Holy Bible
He is aspersing in the noble quran itself
Which is attesting for the Holy Bible
As we clarified before

Finally

Reader brother we have discussed in that book an important issue concerning the Holy Bible from different aspects:
First: Defining the Holy Bible:
1) the contents of the Holy Bible
2) the inspiration of the Holy Bible
Second: the challenges against the Holy Bible
1) Is there one bible or four?
2) Was the bible falsified?
3) Did the quran abrogate the Bible?
In God's will, we will discuss in the next book the issue of Barnabas' bible , and also an important issue, that's: did the bible and the Taurât foretell about the prophet Muhammad? So see you later